Moerbeke's Latin vs Aristotle's Greek
Thanks to Poldy for posting the Greek to the text from the
Metaphysics (see post below) but I'm still a bit puzzled. Here's Aristotle's Latin.
οὐδὲν γὰρ ἂν ἧττον ἦν ὁ χαλκὸς
οὐδὲν τοῦ εἴδους
I recognise some words, but where is the negative? Goodposter-Poldy translates this as 'bronze still would
not have belonged to the form'.
And here is William's Latin:
nichil enim utique minus erat aes speciei
This I read as: for none the less the bronze
would be [part] of the species. Thomas' paraphrase is
nihilominus tamen sic esset pars speciei circuli aes
which also does not appear to contain the negative. I used the edition by Vuillemin-Diem. The sentence is on line 580 of
p. 153. This does not have a 'not'. However, the notes to this line below seem to mention the existence of a 'non' after the minus, though I find the code of all such notes confusing. Presumably this means one manuscript (Fa?) had the non?
The 14C manuscript from the Schoenberg collection
here (col b, 10th line from bottom) does not contain the non, at any rate.